Need a small clarification about "AML" rule.

Quote: jaguar16000
Hi,

Let's see an example in order to better understand the rule, so my question is
Suppose that I Deposit 100$ with Payza and 110$ with Paypal
the rule says : You can only request an unlimited amount to be paid to the payment processor you've used to make the most of your purchases in monetary amount.
Then can I request 210$ + profit to Paypal "of course regardless of withdrawal regulation where 20% goes to purchase balance ect.."

Thank you

Quote: MichaelKlineJr
Though I understand the current rule, and understand it's necessity, I believe a different standard should be used:

If, for example, you made the given deposits, you should be forced to withdraw using these two processors until the amounts you have withdrawn from each is equal/greater to the amount you have deposited with each. Once all processor deposits have been zeroed out by equal/greater withdraws, you could withdraw any amount with any processor you choose. To clarify, all withdraws should be forced to processors with a (deposit > withdraw) value until all deposits are paid back. This includes Ad Package purchases/Upgrades, etc.

Quote: marijoy

Oh yea, the rule is strictly implementing the deposit>withdraw rule.
For the given deposit example above, when we say limited WD on Payza,
the maximum he can WD is the amount what he deposited, the $100 only.

and from your other concern, I think I understand a little bit.
and if you can explain more, it is very much appreciated.

Thanks to you, Michael.